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Yesterday, 11:55 AM   #31
the.yangist
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Phix
Martin,
Say that it is agreed that your argument is a circular argument. What of significance follows from that? The mere fact that it is sound but also a fallacy does not say much. Indeed, one could argue that the fallacy is employed mainly because circular arguments end up being sound.
This isn't a fallacy. The conclusion follows from the premise and the premise is true independent of the argument provided. It's just not an interesting argument.

Last edited by the.yangist : Yesterday at 11:58 AM.
 
Yesterday, 12:10 PM   #32
Phix
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Quote:
Originally Posted by the.yangist
This isn't a fallacy. The conclusion follows from the premise and the premise is true independent of the argument provided. It's just not an interesting argument.
I agree with you, but Martin did say that the fallacy does not apply formally and your previous issue -- i.e. the last post that dealt with the confusion between porvability and entailment -- doesn't apply if the fallacy isn't a formal fallacy. However, it is a little confusing why the formal idea of soundness gets employed by Martin while claiming that the fallacy isn't formal -- i.e. soundness is a formal language concept that doesn't occur in natural language arguments (i.e. non-formal ones).
 


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